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The first practice of More's Utopias that I wish to examine is that of slavery. Throughout history nearly every great civilization has at one time or another practiced slavery. For most of history this practiced was never determined to immoral or even just wrong. There are two classes of slaves in Utopia. One class is sort of justifiable in that it takes impoverished people from a foreign land and gives them room and board in exchange for work. These slaves are in essence just citizens of Utopia that have to work more then the allotted six hours a day. These slaves are allowed to leave whenever they wish (although this never happens) and the Utopians would even provide them with means for their travels. It is the second class of slaves that goes against the ever-evolving term utopia. While these slaves are not acquired in the standard European manner the lives that they live are starkly similar to that of a non-Utopia slave in the sense that they are owned. These slaves will never win their freedom. Hythloday proves that this class does indeed fit the definition of slave when he says, "These types of slaves are kept at perpetual work and in chains" (More 133). This quote taken from the chapter on slavery in Utopia seems to echo the lives of slaves in every other civilization. So I ask you this. Can a society that holds and obtains slaves be truly considered a utopia? Do the moral principals that Utopia so strongly upholds fit with the model of enslaving another human being? The answer is no. If a society is to claim itself a utopia then slavery or even the notion of slavery being a justified act cannot be present. .
Hythloday attempts to justify the Utopians" use of slaves in several ways. In regards to the first mentioned class of slaves there is little need for justification. These people are willingly held to slavery and can break that hold whenever they wish. In essence these people are not truly slaves more like the indentured servants that were so popular during England's colonization of the New World.